In the HN comment that the article discusses [0] is the conclusion that commenter a1369209993 is correct (there are as many between 0 & 1 as 1 & +INF) and llm_trw is not correct? I got a bit confused.
Also, the article links to a blog by Daniel Lemire [1] in which he says (with regard to producing an unbiased random float) "picking an integer in [0,2^32) at random and dividing it by 2^32, was equivalent to picking a number at random in [0,1)" is incorrect and there is a ratio of up to 257:1 in the distribution so obtained. Not wanting to disagree with Daniel Lemire but I can't see why, and a quick experiment in Python didn't give this ratio.
[0] https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=41112688
[1] https://lemire.me/blog/2017/02/28/how-many-floating-point-nu...